The question I have is difficult to phrase, so let me try:
I recently read in the Summa the section on Fate and Divine Providence. In this section Thomas says that there is Fate, but that Fate is equal to Divine Providence. He mentions that the word Fate (L. fatum) is derived from the latin word fari which means to foretell. He then refers to Augustine and Bothius who revile at the use of the word Fate as it is used by infidels (pagans) and may be misunderstood by the christian. Then he goes on to say that the christian should understand that Fate = Divine Providence, and that we should use this word in place of Fate as not to confuse the two. Thomas equates the two, Fate and preordained Divine Providence. When I read this, it sounded more like Calvinism. The concept of free will (and I understand that all out comes of free will are in the knowledge and understanding of God) does away with the concept of Fate all together.
The question is, what exactly is Thomas trying to express about Fate, and are we Fated in life or are we acting in Free Will? In Divine Providence is there the concept of Fate, thus making the use of Free Will a mute point?
So, with the information I have received that this is an idea still open to debate as to what exactly is meant by the terms Fate, Predestination, Divine Providence and Free Will, I journey forth on my trek to knowledge and understanding.
A quick sidebar here, in that Augustine understood the word Fate and Fates more in the understanding of what we would call astrology today, thus his aversion to the use of the word and how Aquinas, living almost a 1000 years later looks at the word differently. Thus I need to see how I would understand the word myself today, and try and revamp that idea as well.
Looks like I have my summer reading list all lined up!
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